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You say that the Bible is God's word but the 27 writings in the New Testament were only finally selected during the fourth century when the church had become worldly (Constantine, etc). If you say 'Well, I still believe God was responsible for the selection', the obvious question is why did it take so long and secondly, why did the early Christians use writings that were not selected for the canon but also used some that were rejected? As the Christian faith is based on the life and death of Christ, why is there no extra-Biblical record of his existence before the second century, and the only information concerning an earthly life are the four anonymous Gospels? I now find myself asking much the same questions that I did with a previous writer, i.e., Why so many Christians fail to comply with Biblical statements? For example, Christ is said to have raised the dead, walked on water, cured all manner of illnesses, and in John 14:12, he is reported to have said (my italics):-'He who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works, than these will he do...'. Consequently, Christians should be achieving not only all that Christ is said to have done, but even more than this. And yet, this is clearly not so. Why not? Christ is reported to have told his disciples that the follower must 'take up his cross and follow me' (Matt 10:38, 16:24) and lose his life for Christ's sake (Matt 10:39, 16:25). How many Christians do this? Luke 14:26 has Christ saying that: 'if anyone comes to me and does not hate his own father and mother and wife and children...he cannot be my disciple' (NB. The Greek word rendered 'hate' here means 'to hate, usually implying ill-will in words and conduct or a persecuting spirit'. Bullinger). How many Christians hate their parents, spouse and/or children? In Matt 19:24 Christ is reported as warning: 'It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than a rich man to enter the kingdom of God'. Despite futile attempts to give this a 'symbolic' or 'allegorical' meaning, the statement is absolutely clear: the 'rich' cannot enter heaven (Luke 16:19-23 emphasises this point. Note how the faith or lack of faith of either man is not even mentioned: all we are told is that the rich man went to hell and the poor man/beggar to paradise). 'Rich' in first century Palestine would normally be understood as those who had wealth that far exceeded their day-to-day needs. However, on looking at the lifestyle of many Christians in the West (particularly fundamentalists), such people certainly satisfy the term 'rich' by owning their own home (or homes), the size of which far exceeds their actual need, many owning a car, or several cars, and having a plethora of unnecessary material goods. The vast majority also have savings, investment portfolios, pension schemes, and so on (Ironically, such people are usually the first to proclaim 'moral' judgements on others). Furthermore, this is also in stark contrast to Acts 2:44-45 which reports that the first believers: 'had all things in common; and they sold their possessions and goods and distributed them to all, as any had need'. How many Christians do this? In Matt 5:42, Jesus is reported to have instructed: 'Give to him who begs from you, and do not refuse him who would borrow from you'. How many Christians do this? Surely it is only reasonable to expect Christians to be complying with scriptural instructions before they begin preaching to others? I have found that all Christians I meet 'customize' their faith to suit their desired lifestyle. Anything in the Bible which conflicts with how they want to live is ignored or is deemed 'allegorical' or 'symbolic' or 'no longer binding'. This I find to be dishonest although it further highlights the element of self-deception which is necessary for all religious belief.... |
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